When your eschatology informs, directs, and defines you soteriology (study of salvation), you’re doing theology very wrong!

This is a major problem for the Covenant Eschatology Full Preterism Cult.

These cult members have taken on a false Jesus Christ and a false “40 year Atonement” for the sake of their heretical view on eschatology.

Imagine being so committed to your heretical view on eschatology, that you have no problem adopting a false Jesus Christ to prop up your heretical definition of “the eschatological parousia of Christ”.

The word “parousia” means coming, presence, and arrival.

This Greek word is used 24 times in the New Testament.

18 of these times, we see a reference to the eschatological (end times) coming of Jesus Christ.

So, if your going to say the eschatological (end times) coming, presence, and arrival of Jesus Christ took place in the first century (AD 70), how exactly are you defining this “parousia of Christ”?

How do the cult members in the Covenant Eschatology Full Preterism Cult say Jesus Christ came and arrived in AD 70?

In other words, in what FORM and what NATURE did Jesus Christ come and arrive with in AD 70?

This is super important to answer obviously!

When we look at the 18 times “parousia” is mentioned in the New Testament concerning the coming, presence, and arrival of Jesus Christ in the “end times”, we absolutely must define exactly how this eschatological (end times) “parousia” takes place!

If somebody asks you, “How do you expect the end times coming, presence, and arrival of Jesus Christ to happen?”, do you believe Jesus as a human being man actually comes, arrives, and is present?

Or are you willing to hyper-spiritualize some kind of mystical end times presence of Christ in Spirit?

The Covenant Eschatology Full Preterism Cult members define the eschatological (end times) “parousia” of Christ (referenced 18 times in the New Testament) as Christ coming and arriving in “Spirit”, as the “Presence of Christ” that came and arrived in the “end time” in AD 70.

They say this “Presence” of Christ came and arrived in AD 70, and this eschatological “Presence” of Christ is here now, ever since AD 70.

Is this hyper-spiritualized and mystical definition of the second coming of Christ in AD 70 acceptable?

There are 18 times in the New Testament where we see the word “parousia” used for the eschatological (end times) coming, presence, and arrival of Jesus Christ, and are we now okay with saying that the eschatological (end times) coming of Jesus Christ was a “Spirit coming of Christ” in AD 70 as “Presence” that is here now?

No way! This is an Occultic New Age religion definition of “Jesus Christ”!

This is a blatant false Jesus Christ!